APPSC Group 2 Answer Key for SET – D With Questions

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APPSC Group 2 Answer Key for SET – D With Questions:  Andhra Pradesh Public Service Commission(APPSC) Group 2 screening test SET – D Questions with Answers. The APPSC Group 2 examination has been held on February 26, 2017.

APPSC Group 2 screening test SET – D Answer Key and Question Paper 

1. For which area of study in Economics,

did Oliver Hart win the Nobel Prize in 2016?

(1) Theory of Foreign Trade

(2) Analysis of Economic Growth

(3) Study of Inflation

(4) Contribution to Contract Theory

Ans:4

2. Nobel Peace Prize, 2016 was awarded to a ?

(1) Non-Governmental Organisation

(2) Missionary

(3) Head of a State

(4) Rebel party leader

Ans:3

3. Nobel Prize, 2016, in Medicine was awarded for work in the area of ?

(1) Malaria therapy

(2) Infections by parasites

(3) Infections by viruses

(4) Cell autophagy mechanism

Ans 4

4. As per the awards are given by Flightstats for 2016, winner of first place as best performing airline for being on time is?

(1) Singapore Airlines

(2) Quantas

(3) KLM

(4) Delta Airlines

Ans: 3

5. Why did Alauddin Khilji introduce a market policy of fixed prices for food grains ?

(1) For better return to the farmers

(2) To ensure that consumers can directly purchase from farmers

(3) To ensure that the market price is equal to the fair price

(4) To ensure that soldiers can live comfortably with low salary

Ans: 3

6. The decline of trade and commerce in North India between 7th and 10th centuries was partly due to the?

(1) Collapse of West Roman Empire

(2) Collapse of China

(3) Collapse of South East Asia

(4) Decline in skills of Indian artisans

Ans: 1
7. Which of these Sultans set up a Department of Public Works to look after building programmes ?

(1) Firoz Tughlaq

(2) Jalaluddin Tughlaq

(3) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq

(4) Ghiyas Uddin Tughlaq

Ans: 1

8. The silver Rupiya, which remained a standard currency for centuries was introduced by?

(1) Akbar

(2) Sher Shah Suri

(3) Jahangir

(4) Humayun

Ans: 2

9. The “Dahsala” system developed by Raja Todar Mal was for

(1) Collection of revenue at standard rate which was valid for 10 years

(2) Measurement of land once in 10 years for fixing area of assessment

(3) Collection of revenue on the basis of average of produce and prices in the last

10 years

(4) Sharing of crop between the farmer and the State for 10 years

Ans: 3

10. The class of traders who specialized in carrying bulk goods over long distances during Mughal period were called?

(1) Beo Paris

(2) Banks

(3) Sarafs

(4) Banjar as

Ans: 4

11. During Mughal period, approximately how much percentage of rural

agricultural produce was marketed

(1) 10%

(2) 15%

(3) 20%

(4) 25%

Ans: 1

12. who said the following about 18th century India, “Bear in mind that the commerce of India is the commerce of the world”

(1) Peter the Great, of Russia

(2) Vasco da Gama

(3) Robert Clive

(4) Dupleix, the French Governor General

Ans: 1

13. Which of these Nawabs of Bengal abolished all duties on internal trade

(1) Mir Jafar

(2) Siraj-Ud-Daulah

(3) Mir Qasim

(4) Nizam-Ud-Daulah

Ans: 3

14. The Industrial Revolution in Britain led to

(1) Increase in export of raw cotton from

(2) Increase in export of textiles from India

(3) Liberalization of textile trade with India

(4) No change in textile trade from India

Ans: 1

15. In 1750, approximately how much percentage of the manufacturing goods of the world were manufactured in India

(1) 24.5%

(2) 14.5%

(3) 11.5%

(4) 9.5%

Ans: 1

16. which Five Year Plan laid emphasis on heavy industry led development?

(1) Fifth

(2) Fourth

(3) Second

(4) Sixth

Ans: 3

17. Which enactment deals with withdrawal of currency notes from being legal

tender

(1) Prevention of Money Laundering Act

(2) Reserve Bank of India Act

(3) Banking Regulation Act

(4) Indian Paper Currency Order

Ans: 2

18. which name is not associated with Green Revolution in India

(1) C. Subramaniam.

(2) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan

(3) Sardar Swaran Singh

(4) Norman Borlaug

Ans: 3

19. Budget of the Government of India used to be presented as per tradition at 5: 30 p.m. n the Lok Sabha. In which year, was the time of presentation shifted

to 11:00 a.m.

(1) 1999

(2) 2000

(3) 2010

(4) 2001

Ans: 4

20. Fiscal Deficit of the Government of India is closest to

(1) Excess of revenue expenditure over revenue receipts

(2) Interest bearing borrowings during a financial year

3) Excess of revenue and capital expenditure over tax revenue

(4) Accumulated public debt at the end of the financial year

Ans: 1

21. The share of Central taxes to states recommended by the 14th Finance Commission

(1) 42%

(2) 36%

(3) 32.5%

(4) 29.5%

Ans: 1

22. Green Revolution primarily aimed at

(1) Increasing production through redistribution of land

(2) Planned export of food grains

(3) Cash crop cultivation

(4) Increasing production of food grains through high yielding varieties

Ans: 4

23. In 1991 economic reform, which policy measure was not undertaken

(1) Devaluation

(2) Shifting gold from RBI vaults overseas

(3) Demonetisation

(4) Partial convertibility of Rupee

Ans: 3

24. Which policy measure has not been a part of Liberalisation, Privatisation and

Globalisation

(1) FDI in defense sector

(2) Capital account convertibility

(3) FDI in retail sector

(4) Disinvestment

Ans: 3

25. Out of the following crops, Green Revolution produced maximum increase in

the production

(1) Paddy

(2) Wheat

(3) Pulses

(4) Millets

Ans: 2

26. What is the Minimum Support Price in Rupees per Quintal of Common Paddy announced by the Government of India for Kharif 2016-17 season?

(1) Rs 1,470

(2) Rs 1,510

(3) Rs 1,625

(4) Rs 1,650

Ans: 1

27. The target growth rate of agricultural sector as per National Agricultural

Policy, 2000 was in excess of

(1) 2%

(2) 2.5%

(3) 3%

(4) 4%

Ans: 4

28. “Garibi Hatao” was introduced during which Five Year Plan?

(1) 4th Five Year Plan

(2) 5th Five Year Plan

(3) 6th Five Year Plan

(4) 3rd Five Year Plan

Ans: 2

29. Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act does not

(1) Prescribe limits for fiscal and revenue deficits

(2) Prescribe certain vision statements to be laid along with the budgets

(3) Provide for penal provisions if deficit targets are not met

(4) Apply both at Central and State level

Ans: 3

30. Integrated Child Development Scheme (ICDS)

(1) has shared funding by Central and State governments

(2) is fully funded by respective State governments

(3) is fully funded by Central government

(4) is a fully externally aided scheme

Ans: 1

31. Industrial Policy resolution, 1977 focussed on

(1) Heavy industry

(2) Small scale and village industry

(3) Foreign Direct Investment

(4) Mining

Ans: 2

32. The implementation agency for Prime Minister Rozgar Yojana (PMRY) is

(1) Nationalised Bank

(2) Small Industry Service Institute

(3) District Industries Centre

(4) District Employment Exchange

Ans: 3

33. At present, in India, Foreign Direct Investment is completely prohibited in which sector

(1) Petroleum refining

(2) Cable networks

(3) Newspapers

(4) Chit funds

Ans: 4

34. As per the present policy, what is the percentage of Foreign Direct

Investment permitted in total equity for Multi-Brand Retail Trading Sector

(1) 51%

(2) 49%

(3) 26%

(4) 100%

Ans: 1

35. Which of the following is not registered as a Geographical Indication in India as per details available till November, 2016

(1) Tirupati Laddu

(2) Uppada Jamdani Saree

(3) Guntur Sannam Chilli

(4) Bandaru Laddu

Ans: 4

36. As per the vision of National Manufacturing Policy, 2011 how many

additional jobs have to be created in the manufacturing sector by 2022

(1) 200 million

(2) 100 million

(3) 75 million

(4) 60 million

Ans: 2

37. What is the mandate of MGNREGA scheme in terms of days of guaranteed wage employment for those who volunteer to work in a financial year

(1) 100 days to every adult in the village

(2) 150 days to every adult in the village

(3) 100 days to every household in the village whose adult members volunteer to work

(4) 150 days work to every household in the village whose adult members volunteer to work

Ans: 3

38. Under the Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana, what is the annual premium to be paid by the policyholder to get accidental insurance cover?

(1) Rs. 12 exclusive of service tax

(2) Rs. 12 inclusive of service tax

(3) Rs. 330 exclusive of service tax

(4) Rs. 330 inclusive of service tax

Ans: 1

39. What is the annual rate of interest recommended by the Central Board of

Trustees of EPF for the financial year 2016 -17 on EPFO deposits

(1) 8.8%

(2) 8.75%

(3) 8.7%

(4) 8.65%

Ans: 4

40. The Maternity Benefits (Amendment) Bill 2016, proposes to increase the

maternity leave available to mothers with less than 2 surviving children from 12

weeks to ?

(1) 18 weeks

(2) 22 weeks

(3) 26 weeks

(4) 30 weeks

Ans: 3

41. The upper threshold wage limit per month for an employee to avail benefits

of ESI scheme is

(1) Rs. 15,000

(2) Rs. 21,000

(3) Rs. 25,000

(4) Rs. 27,000

Ans: 3

42. As per the 28th QES (Quarterly Report on Changes in Employment) Report of

Labour Bureau, the largest contributor to job growth in the year 2015 was

(1) IT/BPO sector

(2) Textiles & Apparels sector

(3) Metals sector

(4) Automobile sector

Ans: 1

43. As per Census 2011, how much percentage rounded off to nearest integer)

of ST households have walls made of burnt bricks or concrete

(1) 22%

(2) 28%

(3) 24%

(4) 25%

Ans: 1

44. with what objective was CAPART established

(1) Development of supercomputers

(2) Export promotion

(3) Rural development

(4) Pollution control

Ans: 3

45. As per the Agricultural Census 2010-11, the average size of operated land

holdings in hectares in 2010-11 held by all classes together, Scheduled Castes

and Scheduled Tribes in that order are

(1) 1.15; 0.80; 1.52

(2) 1.52; 1.15; 0.80

(3) 1.52; 0.80; 1.15

(4) 1.15; 1.52; 0.80

Ans: 4

46. As per the Agricultural Census, 2010-11, small and medium holdings

constitute about 85% of the total number of holdings in India but the operated

area of these holdings out of the total operated area is only

(1) 54.58%

(2) 44.58%

(3) 34.58%

(4) 24.58%

Ans: 2

47. In its surveys, the indicator used by NSSO to measure economic inequality

amongst households is

(1) Income

(2) Consumption

(3) Wealth

(4) Social status

Ans: 2

48. Who was the chief guest for the 2016 Republic Day parade

(1) Barak Obama

(2) David Cameron

(3) François Hollande

(4) Shinzo Abe

Ans: 3

49. The annual growth rate of real GDP of India in 2014-15 is

(1) 7.3%

(2) 7.8%

(3) 7%

(4) 7.5%

Ans: 1

50. The place Aleppo which was recently in the news is located in

(1) Israel

(2) Syria

(3) Ukraine

(4) Palestine

Ans: 2

51. The country which demonetized its currency after India but immediately

backtracked was

(1) Colombia

(2) Venezuela.

(3) Brazil

(4) Chile

Ans: 2

52. The pair of super view -1 remote sensing satellites were launched by

(1) USA.

(2) Russia

(3) France

(4) China

Ans: 4

53. The theme of World Human Rights Day observed in December 2016 was

(1) My Voice Counts

(2) our Rights, our Freedoms, Always

(3) Stand up for someone’s rights today

(4) # Rights 365

Ans 3

54. Hornbill festival is celebrated showcasing the cultural heritage of

(1) Nagaland

(2) Mizoram

(3) Manipur

(A) Meghalaya

Ans 1

55. The reason for celebrating National Technology Day on 11th May is because

on this day

(1) PARAM supercomputer was inaugurated

(2) ISRO launched its first PSLV rocket

(3) The first nuclear reactor went critical

(4) Nuclear tests were successfully conducted at Pokhran

Ans 4

56. “Santhara” is a ritual of fasting to death amongst

(1) Buddhists

(2) Jains

(3) Sufis

(4) Parsis

Ans 2

57. Magnus Carlsen, the world Chess Champion is from

(1) Sweden

(2) Canada.

(3) Norway

(4) Great Britain

Ans 3

58. FICN is the common acronym of

(1) Foreign Investor Confidence Note

(2) Federal Investigation of crimes Noticed

(3) Fake Indian Currency Note

(4) Federation of InterContinental Nations

Ans 3

59. The share of Andhra Pradesh in Central taxes as recommended by the 14th Finance Commission is

(1) 4.305%

(2) 3.083%

(3) 2.503%

(4) 5.521%

Ans 1

60. The United Nations Convention on Climate Change held at Paris in

December, 2015 agreed on

(1) Centrally determined contributions

(2) Capacity based determination

of contributions

(3) UNO determined contributions

(4) Nationally determined contributions

Ans 4

61. The proposed gravitational-wave observation project in India would be run

by the consortium of research institutions known under the English acronym

(1) IndiGO

(2) ILIGO

(3) IndLIGO

(4) InIGO

Ans 1

62. National National Research Laboratory is located is near

(1) Thiruvananthapuram

(2) Chandigarh

(3) Tirupati

(4) Bengaluru

Ans 3

68. The theme of the Nobel Prize winning book, “Secondhand Time” is

(1) concept of time in Science

(2) Society and Politics of Soviet Union

(3) Management of time

(4) History of different times

Ans 2

64. The 104th Indian Science Congress was held at

(1) Chennai

(2) Tirupati

(3) Mysore

(4) Kolkata

Ans 2

 

65. Which of the following is not counted in Human Development Index (HDI)

(1) Per capita income

(2) Number of years of schooling

(3) Ownership of basic assets

(4) Life expectancy at birth

Ans 3

66. T.M. Krishna was awarded Magsaysay Award, 2016 for

(1) Excellence in music

(2) Public service

(3) working for world peace

(4) Ensuring social inclusiveness in culture

Ans 4

67. Out of the persons mentioned below, who is one of the founders of “Safai

Andolan”

(1) Kailash Satyarthi

(2) Bezwada Wilson

(3) Bindeshwar Pathak

(4) Kamla ben Gurjar

Ans 2

68. Dilma Rousseff was in news because

(1) She won the second term as the President of Brazil

(2) She won an international award for peace

(3) She was impeached from office by the Senate

(4) She was ousted from power in a coup

Ans 3

69. After Brexit referendum results, the following did not happen in UK

(1) There was a change of Prime Minister

(2) The opposition party came to power

(3) The new Prime Minister is a lady

(4) The Home Secretary became the new Conservative leader

Ans 2

70. The referendum in Greece in June, 2015 was to decide on whether

(1) Currency should be devalued

(2) To curtail powers of the Parliament or not

(3) To leave EU or not

(4) To accept bailout conditions by EU and IMF or not

Ans 4

71. After leaving India, Vijay Mallya is hiding in a / an

(1) English village

(2) French villa

(3) Cruise ship

(4) US resort

Ans 1

72. The prize considered equivalent to Nobel Prize for Mathematics is

(1) Fields Medal

(2) Newton Medal

(3) Ramanujan Medal

(4) Pythagoras Medal

Ans 1

73. Obama Care is the

(1) Law for affordable health care

(2) Law for education for everyone

(3) Law for protection against racial violence

(4) Law for care of the shelterless

Ans 1

74. Who is the present Secretary General of the UNO

(1) Ban Ki-Moon

(2) Kofi Annan

(3) Antonio Guterres

(4) Irina Bokova

Ans 3

75. who is the Managing Director of the International Monetary Fund

(1) Christine Lagarde

(2) Joseph Stiglitz

(3) Kristalina Georgieva

(4) Jim Yong Kim

Ans 1

76. The present Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is

(1) P.J Kurien

(2) Arun Jaitley

(3) Hamid Ansari

(4) Selja Kumari

Ans 3

 

77. The book titled “Half Lion” is about

(1) Sitaram Kesri

(2) Rajiv Gandhi

(3) P V. Narasimha Rao

(4) Manmohan Singh

Ans 3

78. India’s first digital village is

1) Ibrahimpur

(2) Akodara

(3) Dhasai

(4) Khan dalavadi

Ans 2

79. The mobile app BHIM CBharat Interface for Money is based on

(1) Central Payment Interface

(2) Local Payment Interface

(3) Unified Payment Interface

(4) World Payment Interface

Ans 3

80. The foundation stone for Indian Institute of Skills was laid by the Prime

Minister in

(1) Allahabad

(2) Lucknow

(3) Patna

(4) Kanpur

Ans 4

81. Fifth India-Arab Partnership Conference was held at

(1) Dubai

(2) Muscat

(3) Qatar

(4) Riyadh

Ans 2

82. “UJALA” scheme launched by the Centre aims

(1) Providing electricity connection to all houses.

(2) Promoting efficient lighting by providing LED bulbs

(3) Promoting solar energy devices

(4) Providing open access for sale of power

Ans 2

 

83. Who is the Scientific Adviser to the Defence Minister?

(1) S. Christopher

(2) R. Chidambaram

(3) V. K. Saraswat

(4) G. Satheesh Reddy

Ans 4

84. The bronze medal of Yogeshwar Dutt in wrestling in 2012, London Olympics

was upgraded to silver because the following wrestler failed the dope test

(1) Togrul Asgarov

(2) Sharif Sharifov

(3) Jake Varner

(4) Besik Kuduk hov

Ans 4

85. Who is the new Chief of Air Force of India

(1) Bipin Rawat

(2) B. S. Dhanoa

(3) Sunil Lamba

(4) Arup Raha

Ans 2

86. The 77th session of the Indian History Congress was held at

(1) Chennai

(2) Bengaluru

(3) Thiruvananthapuram

(4) New Delhi

Ans 3

87. For which project, did Andhra Pradesh win the Gold award in the category of

“Out standing Performance in Citizen-Centric Service Delivery” in the 20th

National Conference on e-Governance held in January, 2017

(1) Aadhar-enabled PDS

(2) Loan Module

(3) State Pension Portal

(4) CORE

Ans 1

88. Which of the following towns in Andhra Pradesh is part of HRIDAY scheme

of the Ministry of Urban Development of the Government of India

(1) Tirupati

(2) Srisailam

 

(3) Vijayawada

(4) Amaravati

Ans 4

89. The Lodha Committee report on working of BCCI

(1) Proposes ban on betting

(2) Does not deal with betting

(3) Proposes legalization of betting

(4) Proposes jail sentence for betting

Ans 3

90. The Badminton world Federation Most Improved Player of the Year Award

for 2016 was given to

(1) P.V. Sindhu

(2) Carolina Marina

(3) Sun Yu

(4) Ayaka Takahashi

Ans 1

91. Who is the new Lieutenant Governor of Delhi

(1) Anil Goel

(2) Anil Baijal

(3) Vijay Goel

(4) Pradip Baijal

Ans 2

92. Which artist sketched the National Emblem in the original copy of the

Constitution

(1) Nandlal Bose

(2) Dinanath Bhargava

(3) Jatin Das

(4) Kanu Desai

Ans 2

93. Who won the Sahitya Akademi Award for poetry in Telugu for 2016

(1) Papineni Sivasankar

(2) Katyayani Vidmahe

(3) R. Chandrasekhara Reddy

(4) Volga

Ans 1

 

94. What is Chiraharitae

(1) Species of deer discovered in Madhya Pradesh

(2) Long leaf plant discovered in Karnataka

(3) Termite species discovered in Kerala

(4) Butterfly species discovered in Tamil

Ans 4

95. Which country won the Kabaddi World cup 2016

(1) India

(2) Thailand

(3) Iran

(4) South Korea

Ans 1

96. The winner of the National Award for 2016 under Pandit Deen Dayal

Upadhyaya Anty odaya Krishi Puraskar is

(1) Roop Singh

(2) Rajender Singh

(3) Krishna Yadav

(4) Aruna Rai

Ans 3

97. The farming model proposed by Subhash Palekar is

(1) Low budget organic farming

(2) Zero budget natural farming

(3) Multi-level organic farming

(4) Nature friendly organic farming

Ans 2

98. As stated in the Preamble to the Constitution of India, India is a

(1) Sovereign Secular Socialist Democratic Republic

(2) Socialist Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic

(3) Secular sovereign Democratic Socialist Republic

(4) Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic

Ans 4

99. How many Fundamental Duties are stated in Article 51A of the Constitution

(1) 9

(2) 10

(3) 11

(4) 12

Ans 3

 

100. In India, any violation to the right to property cannot be challenged by

filing a

(1) writ under Article 226 of the Constitution

(2) Civil suit before a Court

(3) writ under Article 32 of the Constitution

(4) Case before Lok Adalat

Ans 3

101. According to Article 248 of the Indian Constitution, Residuary Power is

vested with the

(1) Parliament

(2) States

(3) Union and States jointly

(4) President

Ans 1

102. How many times can a person be elected as the President of India

(1) Once

(2) No restriction

(3) Twice

(4) Two terms consecutively

Ans 2

103. In which case did the Supreme Court deliver the landmark judgement

dealing with imposition of President’s Rule in the States

(1) Golaknath

(2) Maneka Gandhi

(3) Minerva Mills

(4) S R. Bommai

Ans 4

104. For altering the boundary of a state or for creation of a new State,

(1) Concurrence of the affected State Assembly is required

(2) views of the affected State Assembly are to be sought by the President

(3) Two-thirds majority of the affected State Assembly is required

(4) Affected State has to make a recommendation to the Lok Sabha

Ans 2

105. Which one of the following writs can be filed against a private person also

(1) Quo warranto

(2) Certiorari

(3) Habeas Corpus

 

(4) Mandamus

Ans 3

106. The day which is celebrated as the Constitution day in India is

(1) January 26

(2) January 30

(3) August 15

(4) November 26

Ans 4

107. Which one of the following does not indicate a prominent federal feature

of the Indian State

(1) Allocation of financial resources

(2) Independent judiciary

(3) Supremacy of the Constitution

(4) Distribution of powers

Ans 1

108. In the words of K. C. Wheare, a constitutional expert, India is

(1) a cooperative federation

(2) a quasi-federation

(3) a strong union

(4) not a federation

Ans 2

109. In which year, did the right to education come into force as a fundamental

right?

(1) 2001

(2) 2002

(3) 2009

(4) 2010

Ans 4

110. The reason for the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament being headed

by a member of the opposition party in the Lok Sabha is

(1) Rules framed by the Government

(2) Convention

(3) Rules of Procedure of Parliament

(4) Presidential order

Ans 2

 

111. How many members are from the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha

respectively in the Parliamentary Committee on Welfare of Scheduled Castes

and Scheduled Tribes

(1) 15, 15

(2) 15, 10

(3) 20, 10

(4) 10, 10

Ans 3

112. The Model Code of Conduct for elections is issued by the Election

Commission as per

(1) Rules in the Constitution

(2) Rules in the Indian Penal Code

(3) Issued for voluntary compliance

(4) Rules laid down in the Peoples Representation Act

Ans 4

113. President’s Rule is declared under which Article of the Constitution?

(1) Article 356

(2) Article 358

(3) Article 360

(4) Article 352

Ans 1

114. Article 32 of the Constitution

(1) can be amended with simple majority

(2) Cannot be amended

(3) Can be amended with two-thirds majority

(4) can be amended with ratification by the States

Ans 3

115. Which of these Fundamental Rights is available only to a citizen of India

(1) Rights under Article 19

(2) Rights under Article 25

(3) Rights under Article 21

(4) Rights under Article 14

Ans 1

116. It is believed that Fundamental Duties have been introduced in the

Constitution upon recommendation by this Committee

(1) Swaran Singh Committee

(2) Narasimha Rao Committee

 

(3) Chavan Committee

(4) Buta Singh Committee

Ans 1

117. Decisions of Inter State Council are taken by

(1) Consensus

(2) Simple majority from the members present

(3) Two-thirds majority from the members present

(4) Three-fourths majority from the members present

Ans 1

118. Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution are adopted on the lines of

the ConstitutInter-State

(1)Germany

(2) USSR

(3) Ireland

(4) Canada

Ans 2

119. In the case of Supreme Court Advocates on Record Association, which of

the following judges upheld the Constitutional Amendment for creation of

National Judicial Appointments Council

(1) Justice J.S. Khehar

(2) Justice M. B. Lokur

(3) Justice J. Chelameswar

(4) Justice Kurian Joseph

Ans 3

120. As recommended by Justice M.M. Punchhi Commission on Centre-State

relations, the Governor of a State shall have

(1) a tenure fixed for 3 years

(2) no fixed tenure

(3) a tenure determined by the State Assembly

(4) a tenure fixed for 5 years

Ans 4

121. The following is not one of the Directive Principles in the Constitution

(1) Increasing international trade

(2) Prohibition of cow slaughter

 

(3) Equal pay for equal work of men and women

(4) Separation of Judiciary from Executive

Ans 1

122. Which Article of the Directive Principles of the Constitution mentions about

empowering Village Panchayats

(1) Article 38

(2) Article 39

(3) Article 40

(4) Article 41

Ans 3

123. Who circulated a questionnaire on Uniform Civil Code in October, 2016 to

solicit opinions from the public at large

(1) Ministry of Law and Justice

(2) National Commission for Minorities

(3) National Human Rights Commission

(4) National Law Commission

Ans 1

124. As per the Constitution, a Union Minister shall hold office during pleasure

of the

(1) Prime Minister

(2) President of Ruling party

(3) President

(4) Leader of the House

Ans 3

125. As per the Constitution, the Council of Union Ministers is collectively

responsible to

(1) Both the Houses of Parliament

(2) The President

(3) The Ruling Party

(4) The Lok Sabha

Ans 4

126. In which category was Sachin Tendulkar nominated as the member of the

Rajya Sabha

(1) Literature

(2) Arts

(3) Science

 

(4) Social Service

Ans 2

127. whose decision is final in deciding whether a bill is a money bill or not?

(1) The President

(2) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

(3) The Finance Minister

(4) The Supreme Court

Ans 2

128. Collegium system of appointment of Supreme Court Judges derives

sanction from

(1) The Constitution

(2) Consent of Government

(3) Decisions of Supreme Court

(4) President of India

Ans 3

129. If a bill is introduced in the the Council of the State and sent to Legislative

Assembly for approval but if the Legislative Assembly rejects the bill, what is the

next course of action?

(1) Joint sitting of both the Houses

(2) Council may send the bill back to the Assembly for reconsideration

(3) Bill may be sent to the Governor for examination

(4) The fate of the bill ends

Ans 4

130. The total number of ministers including the Chief Minister in a State shall

not be less than

(1) 12

(2) 10

(3) 15

(4) 7

Ans 1 or 4

131. The remuneration of an Advocate General would be

(1) Equal to that of a High Court Judge

(2) As determined by the Governor

(3) Equal to that of the Chief Secretary of the State

(4) Equal to that of the Cabinet Minister of the State

Ans 2

132. As per Article 243 of the Constitution, the following would be the members

 

of “Gram Sabha ”

(1) All adults with age of 18 years and above in the Panchayat area

(2) All voters as per electoral rolls relating to the Panchayat area

(3) All citizens residing in the Panchayat

(4) All persons allowed by the Gram Panchayat

Ans 2

133. As per the recommendations of the 14th Finance Commission, the

proportion of basic grant a performance grant out of the total grant to a duly

constituted Panchayat would be in the ratio of

(1) 70 : 30

(2) 80 : 20

(3) 90 : 10

(4) 75 : 25

Ans 3

134. The percentage of distribution of revenue from taxes between the Centre

and the States is recommended by the

(1) Finance Commission

(2) NITI Aayog

(3) Inter-State Council

(4) National Development Council

Ans 1

135. The maximum limit placed by the Constitution on levy per annum of

Profession Tax is

(1) Rs. 5,000

(2) Rs. 2,500

(3) Rs. 1,250

(4) Rs. 2,000

Ans 2

136. Match the following Articles with the corresponding States

A. Article 371A. P. Assam

B. Article 371B Q. Nagaland.

C. Article 37iC. R. Manipur

D. Article 371F. S. Mizoram.

E. Article 371G. T. Sikkim

 

(1) AP, BQ, CR, DS, ET

(2) AP, BT, CQ, DS, ER

(3) AQ, BP, CR, DT, ES

(4) AR, BQ, CP, DT, ES

Ans 3

137. As per the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution, how many members shall be

there in Tribes Advisory Council be constituted by a State

(1) Up to 10

(2) Up to 20

(3) Up to 25

(4) Up to 50

Ans 2

138. The regulations with regard for peace and good government in a Scheduled

Area would be issued by

(1) The President

(2) The Parliament

(3) The State Assembly

(4) The Governor

Ans 4

139. Who can alter the boundary of a Scheduled Area

(1) The President

(2) The Parliament

(3) The Governor

(4) The State Assembly

Ans 1

140. An autonomous region is

(1) A federation of autonomous districts

(2) An autonomous unit within an autonomous district

(3) A block of 3 autonomous districts

(4) An autonomous district

Ans 1

141. Even during Emergency, the following rights cannot be suspended

(1) Right under Article 21

(2) Right under Article 19

(3) Right under Article 14

(4) Right under Article 22

Ans 1

 

142. What is the amount of grant-in-aid recommended by the 14th Finance

Commission to the Panchayats during 2015 -2020

(1) Rs. 250,292.20 Cr

(2) Rs. 300,292.20 Cr

(3) Rs. 200,292.20 Cr

(4) Rs. 275,292.20 Cr

Ans 3

143. Cultivation of opium is an item in the

(1) Union List

(2) State List

(3) Concurrent List

(4) Residuary item

Ans 1

144. The power of Parliament to amend the Constitution is limited by the

(1) Supreme Court

(2) Civil Society

(3) States

(4) Constitution

Ans 1

145. Which Article of the Constitution directs to provide instruction in mother

tongue at the primary education stage to the children of linguistic minority

groups?

(1) Article 350A

(2) Article 300A

(3) Article 351A

(4) Article 301A

Ans 1

146. The power of Judicial Review is exercised by the Supreme Court through

which Article of the Constitution

(1) Article 131

(2) Article 132

(3) Article 32

(4) Article 134

Ans 1

147. As per Article 164 of the constitution, a Minister for Tribal Welfare is

compulsory for which State

(1) Madhya Pradesh

 

(2) Maharashtra

(3) Rajasthan

(4) Himachal Pradesh

Ans 1

148. The aim of Pradhan Mantri Uijwala Yojana is

(1) Improve coverage of rural electrification

(2) Impart skills to girl child

(3) Improve female literacy

(4) Provide LPG connections to BPL households

Ans 4

149. Who chaired the 27th Southern Zonal Council Meeting held at

Thiruvananthapuram on 28th December, 2016

(1) Pinarayi Vijayan

(2) Rajnath Singh

(3) Arun Jaitley

(4) Kiran Bedi

Ans 2

150. Arrange the countries in descending order according to total medals won in

the latest Olympics?

(1) USA, Great Britain, China, Russia

(2) USA, China, Great Britain, Russia

(3) USA, Russia, Great Britain, China,

(4) Russia, Great Britain, USA, China

Ans 2

All the best 

Abou90 Team…..

3 COMMENTS

  1. Hi. May i know the how much cutoff marks for sc candidates , and is there any negative marks in APPSC GROUP 2 prelims.

  2. May i know the how much cutoff marks for sc candidates , and is there any negative marks in APPSC GROUP 2 prelims.

Comments are closed.